Commentary on the economy, the markets, and business

Why free trade and globalization aren't quite the same thing

How can you be for free trade yet against (or at least worried about) globalization? Ralph E. Gomory and William Baumol would like to tell you:

On what grounds can we, as free trade advocates, assert that globalization can harm the country? A straightforward explanation suffices: In standard analyses of trade, economists usually assign fixed values to a country's productive capabilities and define trade as the exchange of the goods and services, with each country supplying those items in which its productive capabilities are relatively greatest. With this definition, trade can easily be shown to offer benefits to both parties. Economic analysis repeatedly bears this out. Hence, economists emphatically reject tariffs and other forms of protectionism as impediments to those benefits. We accept this conclusion for the assumed scenario. But when productive capabilities are changing, not fixed, the world enters a whole new ball game. As long shown by many economists - the latest being Nobel Prize winner Paul Samuelson - the end result of that productivity change, even after the period of adjustment, may be better for one's country or it may be worse, depending on circumstances.

More concretely, when the United States trades semiconductors for Asian t-shirts, for example, that is trade in the narrow sense. And we concur with the most basic theoretical conclusion that this exchange clearly benefits both countries. But when Intel properly pursues the interests of its shareholders by building a multi-billion dollar semiconductor plant in China rather than the United States, a shift in comparative productive capability suddenly occurs. Globalization is not simply free trade; it is trade plus shifting productivity. We have not sent China consumer goods, but the capability to produce more effectively.

Gomory is a former IBM executive and Alfred P. Sloan Foundation chief. Baumol is a veteran and much-honored economist (and co-author of my freshman-year econ textbook) who now teaches at NYU. These aren't your usual trade warriors. And it seems to me that they're on to something.

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  • 1

    Okay, I can buy that the movement of capital is somehow different than the movement of goods. But how is Intel building a fab in China different than Toyota building a car plant in the US?

  • 2

    I have always challenged those who thought both terms were interchangeable.

    When talking about letting the "market decide", our business leaders and politicians will always find exceptions to the rule:

    S&L crisis
    Bear Stearns

    What productivity occurs when a hedge fund manager collects his 2.5% fee for managing the fund, regardless of the results?

    What value (something I am will to pay for either goods/services) is created by those who manipulate capital?

    I get value if I buy something that I want that's made in China or the U.S., or if I eat at a restaurant.

    I get some value from my cable provider (the channels I watch, versus all those shopping channels I never watch).

    I would prefer to buy and pay (more) for items produced in the U.S., but those are few and far between.

    What a good definition for productivity? P/E ratio? CEO bonus? Stock options?

  • 3

    Hey, Baumol wrote my Econ 1 textbook, too! And that was this spring! (Though the book was an edition from like '97... it seemed a little too focused on Bill Clinton and a Republican Congress...)

  • 4

    @Curmudgeon: I guess the argument would be that there's more technology transfer (that is, a greater "shift in comparative productive capability") going on when you put an Intel fab in China than when you put a Toyota plant in the U.S.

  • 5

    Hello...new to this blog but the headline on the main page caught my eye.

    I am the least-economically-minded person I know, but this really seems like a no-brainer. Was there ever any doubt that "globalization" benefits the American superrich, exploits the exporting-country poor, and negatively affects non-wealthy Americans? And that when something assists the superrich while harming everyone else, that's going to be bad for the general economy?

  • 6

    to curmudgeon: toyota builds cars in the u.s. to sell to americans, not to ship back to japan. intel and many other u.s. manufacturers send production overseas then ship the results back to american consumers.

  • 7

    @Justin - It's not entirely clear to me that a microelectronics fab results in more technology transfer than an auto plant. A fab is largely self-contained (beyond the human skills needed to operate it), while an auto plant spawns a community of suppliers who become knowledgeable in aspects of the technology.

    I do know that the technology behind a fab has a much shorter shelf life, typically 18-36 months before it's outdated.

  • 8

    Sounds a lot like new age mercantilism to me. It's taking trade, which is generally, as mentioned in the excerpt, thought of as a win-win, and turning it into a win-lose based on who's making what.

    Comparative advantage says it doesn't really matter who's making what where as long as everyone is making something. (well, not exactly, but that's a simplistic rendering of it) The authors seem to have placed relative values on different types of manufacturing and are arguing that whoever controls these "key" manufacturing industries is winning while everyone else is losing.

    I disagree. Even using the example given, it doesn't really matter if Intel builds their next plant in China because the number of consumers is rising so fast. Win-Lose economics systems only occur in set, stable markets that are experiencing minimal growth, that isn't the case with worldwide consumers at all.

    It looks legit on the surface, but really its just neo-malthusian, neo-mercantilism dressed up with an aura of respectability.

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